Continuing on with John the Apostle’s writings. Was he a trinitarian, modalist, or absolute monotheist? The Prologue is, to mainstreamers evidence that he believed in the Incarnation. I endeavor however to continue to show, as I did in post #5, that this is not the case. From the biblicalunitarian.com site (they are using the efforts of Samuel Barrett, American Unitarian Association, 1825): 7. Because, as the Saviour of men, he was sent by the Father. “And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world. 1 John 4:14. Two same-ontology Beings, interacting by which one of them is submitted to the other one’s plans, directives, and erm…SENTEDNESS, reminds you of…what? Say…a PANTHEON like with the Greek and Roman Gods? ZEUS being the tippy-top patriarch in the heavens, and his progeny and UNDERLINGS vying for prominence and squirming for…autonomy? GEE WHIZ. The pagans surround us ROUND ABOUT. SAVE US from the pagans! Neither does this view seem to dovetail theologically with modalism. God MORPHING into another One, who has a separate soul and character and will…who then tells of the ORIGINAL GOD, as in “the Father,” or…”my Father,” will also be the ontological SOURCE GODHEAD of…this new apparition, Jesus? And then, this new apparition SUBMITS to his Father and God? He SUBMITS because…his Father SENDS him? What does the word SEND entail or imply? For the Jew, it implies the subordinate servanthood, of a servant of God. For Judaism, it implies a mission, a purpose and direction. Since when does GOD get a missive from another One God, IN JUDAISM? This is all…paganISH. And in fact a missing dynamic in Text itself. Yes Jesus is being given MISSIVES, and the HARDEST ONE is his own sacrifice on the Cross, which he gets a preview of. This puts Jesus for the trinitarian as…the One of the Three who sacrifices his…life itself. ODDBALL and DERELICT. For the modalist, this puts the MODE or MANIFESTATION of YHWH to be specifically to Jesus the MODE which does suffer and die. Does that make any sense either? Only one MODE of God then…suffers and dies? Mr. Holy Spirit does not die and the Father does not die, only the JESUS-mode? Gee whiz. I think I am moded-OUT naw forks. Gag me with a…spoon. 12. Because Christ says, “My father is greater than all,” John 10:29. Is not the father, then greater than the son?
13. Because he affirms, in another connection, and without the least qualification, “My Father is greater than I,” John 14:28
Key words here: said in Text, without qualification. By the way…MITIGATING the idea that Jn 10 is Jesus PROVING HE IS GOD, which is the mainstream view. So then let us VIEW the Jn 10 passage, since this event comes CLOSEST to Jesus’ own actual view of his own CHRISTOLOGICAL STATUS. The ACCUSATION against Jesus was, “that he was making himself God.” So then…what was his response? 29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
30 I and my Father are one.
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.
39 Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand,
So…Jesus is proving himself God Almighty…by comparing himself to elohim NOT God Almighty? How does that comparison work? Then he says, because of his WORKS believe him God? Which gospel does Jesus say that OTHERS would do…GREATER WORKS than he himself? Are they gonna be God Almighties ALSO? Gooolllleee. Jim Nabors be rollen over innis grave.
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
It was JOHN’S GOSPEL AGAIN. 14:12. So no…THAT LOGIC does not work. And in fact, there is NO HOW NO WAY John the Apostle could be depicting Jesus PROVING HIMSELF GOD, by this passage. John was a true blue orthodox Jew. Many view him as…a progressive Greek thinker, with the Prologue displaying exactly that. These are however…the ANCHOR POINTS of John’s own thinking, which prove otherwise. As a Jew under Jewish Law, John the Apostle was a Shema affirmer. There is only ONE GOD, called by Jesus Christ, the Father only, Jn 17:3.
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