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Alleged Sources for the Incarnation, part 9.

Updated: Aug 30, 2022

Alleged Sources of the Incarnation, part 9. The fifth post regarding the Christology of John the Apostle. Each post can be seen as his own fundamental anchor points of faith regarding…whether or not John was a modalist, trinitarian, or Abrahamic Monotheist. Or…anything else including a mystic. This is again working off of Samuel Barrett’s original 1825 list of the most prominent unitarian verses/concepts in NT text, and picking out those of John. This section of his list can be lumped-together, since it seems he did so himself: 21. Because he distinctly states, that these works bear witness, not to his own power, but that the Father had sent him, John 5:36.

22. Because he expressly affirms that the works were done, not in his own, but in his Father’s name, John 10:25.

23. Because he asserts, that “him hath God the Father sealed,” i.e. to God the Father he was indebted for his credentials, John 6:27.

24. Because he declares that he is not the author of his own doctrine. “My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me,” John 7:16, 17.

25. Because he represents himself as having been instructed by the Father.As my Father hath taught me, I speak these things,” John 8:28.

26. Because he refers invariablly to the Father as the origin of the authority by which he spoke and acted. “The Father hath given to the Son authority,” & c., John 5:26, 27.

27. Because he acknowledges his dependence on his Heavenly Father for example and direction in all his doings. “The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do,” John 5:19. “The Father loveth the Son, and showeth him all things that himself doeth” John 5:20.

So then…the dissociative conflict which inevitably arises in the beany brain…comes to fore. How IS IT, that another One God, who was…ALWAYS GOD, has to get his power, SEALING, sentedness, DOCTRINE, TEACHINGS and AUTHORITY from his own Father and God? Using the NAME of…this One and…not his own name or authority? For the Jew, there is no conflict of interest or mind here, no dissociative and contradictory thinking. Because for the true JEW, there is only one God, whom Jesus called “the Father.” Whom most then called, the Tetragrammaton, but who remained…one Character, Referent, Subject or Self. If not pronounced out-loud, this was...still the identity of...the One True God.

And in fact, the ABSENCE of any hint of this dissociative thinking or TRANSITION from the singular God of Judaism, to the plural so-called “godhead” of modalism or trinitarianism, tells a general story altogether different. The very FIRST questions even a child would ask, is never recorded in Christianity at all, being asked.

1) How do two Characters, make one God?

2) How can one Character die and God HIMself not die? And…if God DIED, then do we not then lose all hope?

3) How can one Character be on earth and the other one in Heaven, and both be the same God?

4) If God does not change, how can one of Them incorporate FLESH, or that which was CREATED, into His own ontology?

5) How can God take on…another WILL and MIND and SOUL?

6) How can Jesus say…”My Father is greater than I,” Jn 14 and, “My Father is greater than all,” Jn 10, without compromising his EQUAL STATUS so-called, with the Father?

7) How could the Jews have accepted Jesus GOD, when only YHWH is God for them? Did Jesus ANNOUNCE he was a version of…YHWH HIMself? In 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 or 7 or 8 or 9 or 10 or 20 or 40 words? Why say he came IN the name of YHWH if that WAS his own name?

8) The 7 or 8 RECORDED things Jesus SAID he did not know…came from God who is…all-knowing? How does that work?

9) Finally, pertinent to this discussion, even though I must have forgotten some itemizations here…how does ONE who is God give all power, authority, sentedness, witness, prophesy, even WORD ITSELF to another One who is God? Both all-knowing, being all-POWERFUL, being NEVER BORN, being just about ALL THINGS God is…is compromised here with a human being ALSO BEING, God. Oh GEE WHIZ I forgot another question.

10) How can a God be…begotten if He was…not made at all? Did Jesus ever SAY he was…not MADE and CREATED? Does not that word in ANY language MEAN MADE? At least, for the Jew?

The ABSENCE of any of these questions being asked at all, tells an Abrahamic Monotheist’s story. That the JEWS never believed in two or three who ARE GOD. The GREEK THINKERS among Christianity redefined God Himself, to be…a PLURAL Godhead. And the SUBSTANCE or God-MATERIAL or “essence” of God SHARED by Father and Son, at Nicaea, 325 A.D. This effectively was...the formal ANNOUNCEMENT, that Jesus was also God Himself. And it was...something never claimed by Jesus himself. This is not to say that there was no controversy whatsoever. But it is to say that during and within the first few generations of Christendom, there was relatively…none. By the time of the Arian/”Athanasian” debates, among the populace there was definitely…controversy. If the above paragraph is true and accurate, the condition emerges which is also true. What trinitarians and modalists say then, that the succeeding generations had the true Christology of Jesus JUXTAPOSED with the first two, who did NOT have..."the full revelation of Jesus Christ." This included the SALVIFIC THEN revelation, that Jesus Christ is God Incarnate? Whoah, hoah, does that make any sense? Is not Jesus HIMself, considered among the saints of the first generation? So...where are his red-letter sayings, in 3 or 4 or 5 or 6 or 7 or 8 or 9 or 10 or 20 or 40 words, simply and clearly stating...he is God Almighty? In our NT testimonials?

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