In the last post, we touched upon the word “glory” in the Hebrew and Greek, and also the Jn 17 passage whereby Jesus asks for this, in order to withstand the coming Cross with its attendant suffering and death. This is a holistic word, especially for the pentecostal. Even open-ended as to potential meaning, as Jesus was considered the first one GLORIFIED, and to the extent that he was put locatively, at the right hand of YHWH.
We are still picking out the Johannine verses, from Samuel Barrett’s 1825 list of the 100 most unitarian verses in NT. To the conclusion as to whether or not John the Apostle was modalist, trinitarian, or unitarian in general. Especially in light of the Prologue, which mainstreamers consider an undeniable reference to…an Incarnation of God, as Christ Jesus.
(This is the seventh section on John’s own Christology):
63. Because he himself expressly declares that it was in consequence of his doing what pleased the Father, that the Father was with him and did not leave him alone. “He that sent me is with me; the Father hath not left me alone, for I do always those things that please him,” John 8: 29.
65. Because he speaks of himself as one who had received commands from the Father. “The Father, who sent me, he gave me a commandment,” John 12:49.
66. Because he is represented as obeying the Father, and as having been “obedient unto death,” Phil 2:8. “Even as the Father said unto me, so I speak,” John 12:50. “I have kept my Father’s commandments,” John 15:10. https://www.biblicalunitarian.com/100-scriptural-arguments-for-the-unitarian-faith
This is kind of…one-sided in that…the direction of servitude, glorifying, obedience, missives and doing what PLEASES his Father and God generally does not go the opposite direction. God the Father OBEYS God the Son? SERVES him? PLEASES him? Gets sent by him? Gets ANOINTED by the Son?
In modalistic or trinitarian motif then…the ODD singular direction of Jesus being SUBSERVIENT, SUBORDINATE, and SUBMISSIVE to his Father and God is…what the Bible depicts and never the other way around. Thus the “office or role” depiction of Jesus being essentially equal but not…really INequal by virtue of his…same essence, nature or…ousia. God-substance. Like I said: ODD. What ends up being the condition JisG acolytes’ condition is in…is then like a Roman or Greek PANTHEON, God the Father has a FAMILIAL role OVER Jesus which is formal but superficial or…even vaguely an apparent…reality. Called among theologians, an "inequality of office or role" only.
How can God the Father be PLEASING Jesus if He told him he must suffer and DIE anyway? Never could fathom that…concept in the least. VISCERALLY then…Jesus is SUBORDINATE to his God, always and in extremis. As you and I…with our FACE IN THE DIRT, might be ourselves, sooner or later. It would PLEASE GOD, that Jesus would SUFFER and DIE?
Yes…that is the nature of sacrifice, which every Christian must face. True Christianity, to follow the anointed and sent man, to the ends of the earth. Sorry for the added theology which is not CHRISTology, per se.
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